I think the word “said” is being overlooked here, he meant there is not the same type of anti-Black and anti-Latino racism and history of redlining in the UK as there has been in the US and that pit bull bans there do not seem to be geared in the same degree toward barring select races from moving into select neighborhoods. He wasn’t trying to say the UK has never had any history of slavery and racism with any race, just that attributing a pit bull ban to race in the fashion that the OP cites does not square with the dynamics behind the UK pit bull ban–which almost exclusively affects chud white people.